Several of my favorite books are written by James Loewen, (Lies My Teacher Told Me); (Everything You Have Been Taught is Wrong); etc which basically is asking the readers to question what they were taught about history.
I am going to ask this question about the start of WWII. If Poland had an agreement with England and France to help defend its borders if attacked, then why didn’t the powers declare war on Russia when it attacked Poland? Imagine the consequences for then Russia would not have been an “Allied” partner and then the U.S., England, and France would have had to drive the Russians back to Lithuania.

You will never Know till you find out

Had Pilsudsky been successful in
starting a war against Hitler in
1934, this question.....................

pete

ps:Seems like history is doing it again.....

Pilsudski told a trusted officer:-

”It is Germany’s dream to achieve cooperation with Russia, as it was in the times of Bismarck. The achievement of such cooperation would be our downfall. We cannot allow it to happen. Despite the huge differences between the systems and cultures of Germany and Russia, this danger must be constantly watched. Stranger alliances have existed in the World. How to work against it? Depending on the given circumstances: either by frightening the weaker one or by a successive relaxation of tensions. The game will be difficult, given the paralysis of will and short-sightedness of the West and the failure of my federative plans.”

If Poland had allied itself with Czechoslovakia, Hitler would have had second thoughts about attacking both of them, regardless of what the West did.  Taking each of them separately offered no problem for him.

Baltic States also could have joined the union, but Pilsudski’s vain imperial ambitions made him occupy Vilnius, thus angering Lithuania, and blocking future cooperation between Poland and the Baltic States.